Not sure how the author could have missed the fact that originally spices were also used to cover unappealing tastes. Highly spiced meat in the middle ages and Renaissance? And no mention of the strong spices masking the taste of decay? And there is also a connection between highly spiced foot and the more affordable sources of protein. Bottom feeders like catfish, scraps and offal from animals…. Strong tastes like those call out for spices more than a chicken breast or a filet mignon.
Industrialization did not create a condition where the working class consumed lesser quality foodstuffs. that pattern has existed since the beginning of time. How does the author account for soul food? Or the potato famine? Oy…. Why are their European laws about what can go into a type of alcohol? Or bread? Why are there laws about using standardized measurements? Does the author assume these habits came out of a vacuum, that they were not created out of necessity because consumers were being sold and fed inferior products?
The article starts with an interesting premise but these omissions make this piece a plate of self-indulgent, poorly thought-out crap.